Brief background....in June of 2009 I developed PIH, Preeclampsia and HELLP at 20+1. Our newborn lived 80 minutes. I almost died myself. As of today my liver enzymes and BP has been normal. This pregnancy is with my Husband now.
Fast forward to today, we have been TTC since August of last year with no success. Last Thursday we were dropped with these semen analysis:
pH, semen 8.3 (high) Normal 7.3-7.9
Semen viscosity 1 normal 0-1
Volume, semen 0.5 (L) normal 1.5-5.0 cc
motility with 15(L) normal >50%
forward progression (was left blank with no normal ranges)
motility without 10% no normal range listed
forward progression
motility, total 25(L) >60%
sperm count 16.0 (L) >20 mill/ml
morphology (kruger) immature 0%
morphology (kruger) abnormal 89%
morphology (kruger) normal 11%
sperm viabilty 41(L) normal >49%
no other observations.
My OB has referred us to a fertility specialist. We see him August 15th. I am 38 and Hubby is 45. My question is, what does his semen analysis mean, is it bad? Could we still conceive naturally with those #'s? My OB said we would be good candidates for IUI....do you have any idea what our success rate be? Hubby does take meds...Cymbalta, klonopin, metformin, accupril, LDA and we just started him in Zinc and stress B vitamin. Is his #'s that bad?
Ok my ultimate question is....with his abnormal morphology, could that cause Preeclampsia, PIH or HELLP or contribute to it? Birth defect? The reason I say that is our newborn was missing one set of bones in all her left toes. Could his semen contributed to it? We are wanting one surviving child. I cannot believe we are again wearing this type of shoes, again. We are so emotionaly drained. Can you help me and give me more insight....or anyone? Thanks so much. I just need my hand held for a bit!
Fast forward to today, we have been TTC since August of last year with no success. Last Thursday we were dropped with these semen analysis:
pH, semen 8.3 (high) Normal 7.3-7.9
Semen viscosity 1 normal 0-1
Volume, semen 0.5 (L) normal 1.5-5.0 cc
motility with 15(L) normal >50%
forward progression (was left blank with no normal ranges)
motility without 10% no normal range listed
forward progression
motility, total 25(L) >60%
sperm count 16.0 (L) >20 mill/ml
morphology (kruger) immature 0%
morphology (kruger) abnormal 89%
morphology (kruger) normal 11%
sperm viabilty 41(L) normal >49%
no other observations.
My OB has referred us to a fertility specialist. We see him August 15th. I am 38 and Hubby is 45. My question is, what does his semen analysis mean, is it bad? Could we still conceive naturally with those #'s? My OB said we would be good candidates for IUI....do you have any idea what our success rate be? Hubby does take meds...Cymbalta, klonopin, metformin, accupril, LDA and we just started him in Zinc and stress B vitamin. Is his #'s that bad?
Ok my ultimate question is....with his abnormal morphology, could that cause Preeclampsia, PIH or HELLP or contribute to it? Birth defect? The reason I say that is our newborn was missing one set of bones in all her left toes. Could his semen contributed to it? We are wanting one surviving child. I cannot believe we are again wearing this type of shoes, again. We are so emotionaly drained. Can you help me and give me more insight....or anyone? Thanks so much. I just need my hand held for a bit!

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