I am 33 years old have had 5 spontaneous pregnancies, most recently in October 2008. My first pregnancy resulted in my daughter (now turning 4) without any difficulties. Of my 4 losses, one was due to amniotic band syndrome. I have been extensively investigated for recurrent miscarriages with no abnormal results on imaging or bloodwork.
My fertility specialist suggested I try IVIG, and because I do not live near a fertility clinic we decided to try IVF maximize my chances of achieving a pregnancy and to facilitate the timing of the IVIG. Now I have encountered a new problem. I am a poor responder to the stimulation drugs.
This is actually my second IVF cycle, having tried once before (July 2008) when my husband had a transiently low sperm count. In the first cycle I was lupron/200 puregon (increased to 250 on day 8) and had 4 follicles, 3 eggs, 2 good quality embryos transferred on day 3, no pregnancy. For this cycle we are using a GNRH antagonist (orgalutron), menopur 150 and puregon (starting at 150, now increased to 250) and I am on day 10 of the cycle with only 2 follicles of adequate size.
This was very unexpected as I have achieved spontaneous pregnancies recently. Is there a link between me being a poor responder to stim meds and my recurrent miscarriage? Is this an indication that my ovaries are 'older' than expected for my age, and I have poor quality eggs leading to the pregnancy losses? Does this alter my prognosis? I've read that poor responders do not have a good prognosis for IVF, yet I have had several spontaneous pregnancies. I guess I am hoping that makes me somehow different, all though I am finally starting to lose hope.
a.
My fertility specialist suggested I try IVIG, and because I do not live near a fertility clinic we decided to try IVF maximize my chances of achieving a pregnancy and to facilitate the timing of the IVIG. Now I have encountered a new problem. I am a poor responder to the stimulation drugs.
This is actually my second IVF cycle, having tried once before (July 2008) when my husband had a transiently low sperm count. In the first cycle I was lupron/200 puregon (increased to 250 on day 8) and had 4 follicles, 3 eggs, 2 good quality embryos transferred on day 3, no pregnancy. For this cycle we are using a GNRH antagonist (orgalutron), menopur 150 and puregon (starting at 150, now increased to 250) and I am on day 10 of the cycle with only 2 follicles of adequate size.
This was very unexpected as I have achieved spontaneous pregnancies recently. Is there a link between me being a poor responder to stim meds and my recurrent miscarriage? Is this an indication that my ovaries are 'older' than expected for my age, and I have poor quality eggs leading to the pregnancy losses? Does this alter my prognosis? I've read that poor responders do not have a good prognosis for IVF, yet I have had several spontaneous pregnancies. I guess I am hoping that makes me somehow different, all though I am finally starting to lose hope.
a.
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